Online Practice Test 47

Your Results for: "NCLEX® Review "

Print this page

Site Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Book Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Location on Site: Chapter 47 > NCLEX® Review Date/Time Submitted: August 1, 2012 at 1:57 AM (UTC/GMT)

Summary of Results 70% Correct of 10 Scored items: 7 Correct:  70% 3 Incorrect:  30% More information about scoring

1.		While teaching a weight management class, the nurse explains the importance of fiber in the diet for health and weight management. When reviewing the content at the end of the class, the nurse is aware that there is a misunderstanding when a class member responds: Your Answer: "Fiber is a complex carbohydrate that takes a long time to digest, so a person will experience a decreased appetite."
		Objective: Identify essential nutrients and their dietary sources. Rationale: Fiber is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be digested, adds bulk, satisfies appetite, comes from plants, and aids digestion and waste elimination. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
2.		The nurse reads a food label that indicates the following: Carbohydrates: 22 grams Fat: 7 grams Protein: 16 grams The nurse calculates the number of total calories to be:  Your Answer: 215 calories
		Objective: Identify essential nutrients and their dietary sources. Rationale: Calories are calculated from the amount of energy released from food metabolism. Carbohydrates and proteins release 4 calories/gram, and fat releases 9 calories/gram. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
3.		When evaluating compliance with a health and weight loss plan, the nurse notes that which activity as most likely being responsible for a three-pound weight loss in the past month? Your Answer: Physical activity
		Objective: Discuss body weight and body mass standards. Rationale: Metabolism of food maintains and provides energy for the body. Exercise increases the metabolic rate and burns more calories. This causes weight loss. The other kinds of activity may cause some energy expenditure, but much less than the amount caused by physical activity. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
4.		Which client assessed during screening for under- and over nourishment would be considered to be the healthiest? Your Answer: Male, 25 years old, 5 feet 6 inches, 160 pounds, BMI 25, Body fat 21% Correct Answer: Male, 25 years old, 5 feet 11 inches, 160 pounds, BMI 18, Body fat 17%
		Objective: Discuss body weight and body mass standards.  Rationale: Male, 25 years old, 5 feet 11 inches, 160 pounds, BMI 18, Body fat 17% is considered the healthiest based on the information given for BMI and body fat for the ages and heights listed. BMI of 25% or higher is considered overweight. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
5.		The mother of a preschooler asks the nurse about snacks for her child. Which of the foods mentioned is not an age-appropriate snack? Your Answer: Yogurt Correct Answer: Fruit-flavored Popsicles
		Objective: Identify developmental nutritional considerations.  Rationale: Fruit-flavored Popsicles is not an age-appropriate snack. The preschooler should be eating more adult-like food. Their busy, active lifestyle leads to quick meals with a need for nutritious snacks. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
6.		While performing a health assessment, a nurse notes risk factors for nutritional deficiencies. Which client is most likely to suffer a vitamin B deficiency? Your Answer: One who abuses alcohol
		Objective: Discuss essential components and purposes of nutritional screening and nutritional assessment. Rationale: Individuals with a sedentary lifestyle may have a tendency to eat fast foods that are high in salt and saturated fats. Vitamin B is found in low-fat meats. Someone who abuses alcohol is less likely to adhere to recommended nutritional guidelines. Pregnancy requires many additional nutrients. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection. Key words = "most likely"
7.		When eating properly, clients on vegetarian diets will eat a nutritionally complete diet. However, there is a risk of malnutrition of which nutrient?  Your Answer: Protein
		Objective: Discuss essential components and purposes of nutritional screening and nutritional assessment. Rationale: With vegetarian diets, there is a risk of not getting enough protein, since vegetarians don't eat meats that contain protein. Carotene and vitamin C are rich in vegetables. Vegetarians are at no greater risk of water deficiency than non-vegetarians. See Box 47-6, Combinations of Plant Proteins that Provide Complete Proteins. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
8.		Which of the following menus is acceptable for a client on a soft diet? Your Answer: Sweet potatoes, shredded pork, and apple sauce
		Objective: Discuss nursing interventions to treat clients with nutritional problems. Rationale: Meat needs to be lean, tender, chopped, or shredded. Vegetables and fruits need to be cooked, creamed, mashed, and without membranes. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
9.		A client who has a feeding tube most likely has a nursing diagnosis of:  Your Answer: Impaired swallowing
		Objective: Plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care associated with nursing diagnoses related to nutritional problems.  Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is a possibility if a client is unable to swallow, and aspirates food or stomach contents. While possible, this is less likely than Impaired swallowing. A feeding tube will not help a client with constipation or delayed gastric emptying. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
10.		Which client is most likely to receive total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? Your Answer: A client with severe malnutrition due to metastatic cancer who is in a hospice program Correct Answer: A client NPO following surgery for repair of gunshot wounds to the gastrointestinal system
		Objective: Plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care associated with nursing diagnoses related to nutritional problems. Rationale: TPN is used to achieve an anabolic state in clients unable to maintain a normal nitrogen balance. TPN is used for clients with serious illness unable to eat for more than five days. The client in Answer 1 is in the acute phase of an illness that is most likely self-limited. TPN is used for clients with metastatic cancer; however, the client in Answer 2 is facing the end of life and is less likely to be using this expensive medical treatment. Removal of a lung is serious surgery, but the client usually begins eating within five days after surgery. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.

Online Practice Test 46

Your Results for: "NCLEX® Review "

Print this page

Site Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Book Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Location on Site: Chapter 46 > NCLEX® Review Date/Time Submitted: August 1, 2012 at 12:47 AM (UTC/GMT)

Summary of Results 70% Correct of 10 Scored items: 7 Correct:  70% 3 Incorrect:  30% More information about scoring

1.		Which of the following is most important when assessing a client's pain? Your Answer: The client's perception of the pain
		Objective: Identify subjective and objective data to collect and analyze when assessing pain. Rationale: Pain is whatever the client perceives it is. The physical location of the pain, the client's vital signs, and the client's appearing uncomfortable are objective rather than subjective findings. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
2.		When asked about pain, a client complains of having severe discomfort from arthritis. Vital signs are unchanged, and the client is calmly watching television. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate? Your Answer: Altered sensory perception Correct Answer: Chronic pain
		Objective: Identify examples of nursing diagnoses for clients with pain. Rationale: Clients with chronic pain often live with their pain and show no outward signs. Clients with acute pain are more likely to show outward signs of pain. Those with chronic pain may not exhibit any overt signs, even when they experience severe pain. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
3.		A client with an acute bowel obstruction is having ischemic abdominal pain. This type of pain is best described as: Your Answer: Somatic Correct Answer: Visceral
		Objective: Identify examples of nursing diagnoses for clients with pain.  Rationale: Visceral best describes the client with an acute bowel obstruction having ischemic abdominal pain. Somatic is generalized body pain. Intractable is pain that cannot be relieved. Cutaneous is superficial pain. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
4.		A postoperative client is prescribed acetaminophen (Tylenol) with codeine at discharge. When performing discharge teaching, the nurse:  Your Answer: Warns of signs of addiction Correct Answer: Recommends that the client take milk of magnesia at bedtime
		Objective: Individualize a pain treatment plan based on clinical and personal goals, while setting objective outcome criteria by which to evaluate a client's response to interventions for pain. Rationale: Short-term use of codeine is not addicting. The client is instructed to take the medication as often as prescribed for pain. As the patient recovers, this will gradually decrease. There is no validity to the statement in Answer 3. Milk of Magnesia will prevent stomach discomfort, a common side effect of acetaminophen. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
5.		While waiting to perform x-rays on an injured right hand according to nonpharmacological pain management practice, pain can be modulated or reduced if the nurse: Your Answer: Applies ice to the right elbow
		Objective: Individualize a pain treatment plan based on clinical and personal goals, while setting objective outcome criteria by which to evaluate a client's response to interventions for pain. Rationale: Applying ice to the right elbow can help reduce pain. Frequent assessment is important, but does not reduce pain. Answers 2 and 4 are not considered nonpharmacological pain management practices. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
6.		An 8-year-old client is crying with pain after a tonsillectomy. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client? Your Answer: Hold him and provide comfort.
		Objective: Individualize a pain treatment plan based on clinical and personal goals, while setting objective outcome criteria by which to evaluate a client's response to interventions for pain. Rationale: Holding and comforting the client while in pain is most appropriate. Children often regress in behavior when ill or in pain. Punishing, rewarding, or humiliating the child is not appropriate. Crying is an appropriate response to pain. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Decide what is the best action for client and situation
7.		Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) effectiveness is evaluated by: Your Answer: The client's indicating that pain is a 1 on a scale of 1 to 10
		Objective: Identify risks and benefits of various analgesic delivery routes and analgesic delivery technologies. Rationale: PCA is evaluated by the client indicates that pain is a 1 on a scale of 1 to 10. Answer 1 is a preset safety interval set by the physician to prevent overdose. Many factors determine the size of the loading dose, including size of the patient, amount of medication already received, and degree of sedation. Clients in pain may still sleep. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
8.		Severe cancer pain is most effectively treated with analgesics given: Your Answer: Around the clock, with extra doses available as needed
		Objective: Give an example of rational polypharmacy described by the American Pain Society. Rationale: Analgesics can be given around the clock as needed. A bolus may occasionally be needed for a flare-up of pain. Pain is better controlled if analgesia is given before pain returns. Analgesics are not limited in severe cancer pain. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
9.		Both clients and nurses have misconceptions about pain. Which statement reflects a misconception?  Your Answer: Regular administration of analgesics leads to addiction.
		Objective: Differentiate tolerance, dependence, and addiction. Rationale: All of the answers are true statements except for Answer 4. The common misbelief that analgesics lead to addiction often prevents clients from receiving the best control of pain as possible. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Safe, Effective Care Environment Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
10.		Following surgery, a client has great difficulty getting out of bed, walking, and coughing and deep breathing. Although patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is in place, it is rarely used, even when suggested by the nurse. This concerns the nurse. Which statement is the best way to address this concern with the client?  Your Answer: "I noticed you haven't used your pain medication as often as you could, even though it is painful for you to get out of bed and to walk. Many people are reluctant to take pain medication. Tell me what makes you reluctant."
		Objective: Identify risks and benefits of various analgesic delivery routes and analgesic delivery technologies. Rationale: Pain sensation is not a reflection of one's bravery and strength. The point of PCA is to allow clients greater control over their pain medication, not less control. Scaring the client into taking pain medication is not an effective way to accomplish the goal of decreased pain. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.

Online Practice Test 45

Your Results for: "NCLEX® Review"

Print this page

Site Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Book Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Location on Site: Chapter 45 > NCLEX® Review Date/Time Submitted: July 30, 2012 at 4:52 PM (UTC/GMT)

Summary of Results 70% Correct of 10 Scored items: 7 Correct:  70% 3 Incorrect:  30% More information about scoring

1.		A client complains of inadequate sleep quantity and quality for the past month. The client wakes in the morning feeling tired. Which question provides the nurse with the best information about factors that may be contributing to this sleep problem? Your Answer: What are you currently doing to improve your sleep? Correct Answer: What brought this on?
		Objective: Identify factors that affect normal sleep. Rationale: Insomnia usually has an identifiable cause. What brought this on? addresses factors contributing to the problem. All of the incorrect responses do provide information about sleep, but do not directly address factors contributing to the problem. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiologic Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
2.		A client was sexually assaulted two days ago. She is afraid to go to sleep. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis related to the sleep problem is: Your Answer: Disturbed Sleep Pattern, difficulty falling asleep related to fear
		Objective: Identify factors that affect normal sleep. Rationale: Fear is the etiology of difficulty falling asleep. Insomnia is a type of sleep-pattern disturbance. The client does not complain of fatigue. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
3.		During a preschool screening, a parent asks how many hours of sleep a child of 3 years requires each night. What is the correct answer? Your Answer: 10-12 hours
		Objective: Describe variations in sleep patterns throughout the life span. Rationale: Growing children require more sleep than adults. Toddlers need 10-12 hours per day. About 20-30% is REM sleep. Children of this age usually spend about 50% or a little less sleeping at night. Bedtime is disliked, but is facilitated with rituals. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Health Maintenance and Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
4.		The nurse knows that the client understands education about promoting restful sleep when the client says: Your Answer: "I bought some flannel sheets to help me stay warm at night."
		Objective: Describe interventions that promote normal sleep. Rationale: A comfortable, quiet, and calm environment induces sleep. Mental and physical exercise stimulate the mind and body, preventing sleep. Diuretics taken earlier in the day will prevent nocturia. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection
5.		A hospitalized client complains of difficulty falling asleep because of worries associated with the diagnosis. What could the nurse provide for the client that would facilitate sleep? Your Answer: Back massage
		Objective: Describe interventions that promote normal sleep. Rationale: Relaxation facilitates sleep. Nonstrenuous activity can help one become sleepy, but execise can also increase alertness. Chocolate contains caffiene, a stimulant. Light snacks can help sleep, but a high-fat, heavy snack can disrupt sleep. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Psychosocial Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Decide what is the best action for client and situation.
6.		Parents ask a nurse, "Is sleepwalking something we need to be worried about with our 9-year-old?" The best response of the nurse is: Your Answer: "Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, commonly occurs one to two hours after falling asleep, but not regularly. Sleepwalkers may not notice dangers such as stairs or other obstacles, so you will need to protect your child from this kind of injury. What kind of dangers like this do you have in your home?"
		Objective: Describe common sleep disorders. Rationale: Somnambulism is sleepwalking. Grinding and clenching teeth while asleep is called bruxism. Nocturnal enuresis is bed-wetting. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Safe, Effective Care Environment Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Decide what is the best action for client and situation
7.		A client who has taken a barbiturate sleep medication for several months wants to discontinue the medication. What information would be important to give to the client about this medication? Your Answer: It is best to taper the medication dose gradually.
		Objective: Describe interventions that promote normal sleep. Rationale: When this medication is no longer needed, it is best tapered gradually with supervision. Abrupt cessation can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is not best to continue taking the medicine if it is no longer needed. Barbiturate sleep medication is legal when prescribed. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe, Effective Care Environment Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
8.		There are four adult clients who see the nurse for complaints of fatigue. The adult client at greatest risk is the one who gets:  Your Answer: 4.5 hours of sleep Correct Answer: 10 hours of sleep
		Objective: Explain the functions and the physiology of sleep Rationale: Data from over one million adult Americans revealed that the group that slept more than 8.5 hours each night had the greatest mortality. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
9.		__________ is a type of massage consisting of long, slow, gliding strokes. Your Answer: Effleurage
		Objective: Describe interventions that promote normal sleep. Rationale: Effleurage is a type of massage consisting of long, slow, gliding strokes. Research demonstrates that back massage has the ability to elicit a relaxation response. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge of relaxation techniques that may promote sleep.
10.		REM sleep deprivation can be caused by (Select all that apply.): Your Answer: Barbiturates  Alcohol Correct Answers: Barbiturates  Alcohol Jet lag
		Objective: Identify factors that affect normal sleep. Rationale: A prolonged disturbance in amount, quality, and consistency of sleep can lead to sleep deprivation. REM deprivation can be caused by alcohol, barbiturates, shift work, jet lag, extended ICU hospitalization, morphine and meperidine hydrochloride. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge of sleep disorders. Objective: Identify factors that affect normal sleep. Rationale: A prolonged disturbance in amount, quality, and consistency of sleep can lead to sleep deprivation. REM deprivation can be caused by alcohol, barbiturates, shift work, jet lag, extended ICU hospitalization, morphine and meperidine hydrochloride. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge of sleep disorders.

Online Practice Test 44

Your Results for: "NCLEX® Review "

Print this page

Site Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Book Title: Kozier & Erb's Fundamentals of Nursing Location on Site: Chapter 44 > NCLEX® Review Date/Time Submitted: July 29, 2012 at 1:41 PM (UTC/GMT)

Summary of Results 40% Correct of 10 Scored items: 4 Correct:  40% 6 Incorrect:  60% More information about scoring

1.		The nurse positions the immobilized client to maintain the ability for normal movement and stability. This is accomplished when the nurse: Your Answer: Balances the body off the center of gravity to prevent skin breakdown Correct Answer: Performs range of motion with every position change to keep joints flexible
		Objective: Describe four basic elements of normal movement. Rationale: When improperly positioned, joints flex into fixed positions and lose mobility. Properly aligned shoulders and hips fall into the same line of gravity. A properly balanced body is balanced at the center of gravity. Nursing Process: Implementation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
2.		A teen in a full leg cast asks about preventing muscle mass loss in the cast. The best type of exercise the nurse can recommend is:  Your Answer: Isotonic Correct Answer: Isometric
		Objective: Compare the effects of exercise and immobility on body systems. Rationale: The client requires a form of exercise that does not require joint movement but does allow a change in muscle tension. Isotonic, isokinetic, and aerobic forms of exercises require active movement. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
3.		On the fifth postoperative day after major abdominal surgery, the nurse evaluates a client for the effects of immobility. The nurse notes that the care plan was successful when the client states: Your Answer: "I'm still dizzy when I get up, but it is getting better." Correct Answer: "I am ready to eat something besides Jell-O and broth."
		Objective: Compare the effects of exercise and immobility on body systems. Rationale: The nurse is evaluating for signs that the client has suffered no effects of immobility. Answer 2 is an effect of immobility. Other findings are present, but not related to immobility. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
4.		An employee health nurse teaches a body mechanics class. While demonstrating proper lifting techniques, the nurse says:  Your Answer: (blank)
5.		A position that puts an unconscious client at greatest risk for aspirating secretions is: Your Answer: Supine
		Objective: Use safe practices when positioning, moving, lifting, and ambulating clients. Rationale: Supine position puts client at greatest risk for aspirating secretions. Lateral, Sims', and prone positions allow secretions to drain from the mouth. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
6.		Which of the following describes a client with a nursing diagnosis of Activity Intolerance III? Your Answer: Able to climb one flight of stairs slowly without stopping Correct Answer: Unable to climb one flight of stairs without stopping
		Objective: Unable to climb one flight of stairs without stopping is Develop nursing diagnoses and outcomes related to activity, exercise, and mobility problems. Rationale: Activity Intolerance III. Fatigued at rest is Level IV. Able to climb one flight of stairs slowly without stopping is Level II. Able to walk one city block without stopping is Level II. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
7.		Two nurses plan to move a client with weakness into a wheelchair. As they prepare to make the transfer, one of the nurses correctly instructs the client to: Your Answer: Push up from the bed using her arms on the count of three
		Objective: Use safe practices when positioning, moving, lifting, and ambulating clients. Rationale: The client should push up from the bed using her arms on the count of three. The IV pole is unstable, and may roll away from the client. A client should face in the direction in which she is moving. The nurses' feet need to be in front of the client's. Nursing Process: Planning Client Need: Safe, Effective Care Environment Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
8.		A nurse evaluating the performance of an unlicensed assistant corrects a client's position. Which client requires repositioning? Your Answer: A client in a Fowler's position, with the head of the bed raised 75 degrees, a large pillow placed under the head, and plantar flexion of the feet
		Objective: Identify factors influencing a person's body alignment and activity. Rationale: A client in a Fowler's position, with the head of the bed raised 75 degrees, a large pillow placed under the head, and plantar flexion of the feet, requires repositioning. Answers 2, 3, and 4 are positioned correctly. Nursing Process: Evaluation Client Need: Physiological Integrity Cognitive Level: Analysis Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
9.		Which of the following techniques imposes the greatest stress on the nurse's back? Your Answer: Transferring clients in and out of bed
		Objective: Use safe practices when positioning, moving, lifting, and ambulating clients. Rationale: All of the answers may impose a stress on the nurse's back. Answer 4 imposes the greatest risk because of the potential for twisting and working in a small place. Nursing Process: Analysis Client Need: Safe, Effective Care Environment Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.
10.		A nurse is assessing a client's range of motion. An abnormality is detected when: Your Answer: The arm abducts 180 degrees laterally from the side of the body to the side and above the head Correct Answer: The thumb flexes 45 degrees toward the fifth finger
		Objective: Apply a variety of movement interventions and therapies to improve physical health, mobility, strength, balance, mood and cognition. Rationale: An abnormality is detected when the thumb flexes 45 degrees toward the fifth finger. Answers 1, 2, and 3 are not abnormalities. Nursing Process: Assessment Client Need: Physiologic Integrity Cognitive Level: Application Strategy: Use nursing knowledge and the process of elimination to make a selection.